Ameer's Q & A: Definition of the Islamic Aqeedah and the Mutakallimīn [Scholastics]
- Published in Ideological Questions
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It seemed to me that this saying contradicts with his above saying about the errors of the Mu’tazilah in drawing analogy of the justice of Allah (swt), which is not sensorially perceived, with the justice of man. How can we rationally sense the justice of Allah (swt) without a Shari’ evidence, and then say His punishing the kafir, munafiq and disobedient would constitute injustice?
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