We know that America is a state of institutions and that the outlines of America in international politics are governed by the institutions of governance in America, and not by the president. How do we explain that America ratified the nuclear agreement with Iran and considered it as a victory, and now Trump has withdrawn from it and considered it a victory?
Saudi Crown Prince, Mohammad Bin Salman, concluded his visit to France, which started on Monday 09/04/2018 and lasted two days until 10/04/2018. He has previously visited Britain on 10/03/2018 for three days. Followed by a visit to America, from 20/03/2018 until 08/04/2018... He was received as a head of a state. So what is behind these visits? What is striking is that these visits are to parties of different interests; what is common between them
What is behind the American strike on Syria tonight despite the fact that Putin has troops in Tartous and Hameim? How can the work be in coordination with America when America strikes his forces in Syria? And how can there be an alliance between America, Britain and France while their interests are different?
Is the Southern Movement (Al-Hirak Al-Janoubi) still American? Or that the agency of the Council became for the British because of the containment of the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and became a follower of the UAE, and the UAE represents the British in the country? In other words, did America fail to maintain the Southern Movement and Britain was able through the UAE to include it to its side?
It has been noted that Erdogan's movements in Syria have calmed down relatively after Operation Shield of the Euphrates and Erdogan’s abandonment of Aleppo, and allowing the regime to take control over Aleppo, but he resumed the operation in the name of Olive Branch heading towards Afrin since Saturday, 20/01/2018, through artillery and air shelling. According to the statement issued by the Turkish Chief of Staff on Sunday 21/01/2018:
It has been noted during the massive demonstrations that took place in the Kurdistan region, especially in the province of Sulaymaniyah on 19/12/2017, the news reports that said that Iran played a role in them. Can it be said that the Kurdistan region had a hand in the protests in Iran on 28/12/2017 as a case of tit for tats? In other words: 1- Is what took place in Iran and in the region a reaction to an action? 2- Did they move spontaneously or an external force moved them? 3- If so, who is this force? Are these protests meant to change the regime in the region or Iran?
The first question: We know that Russia entered Syria by an agreement with America or by its order to maintain the regime and create the atmosphere for a political solution with the opposition. But it was noted that America is almost aborting the efforts of Russia to bring together the regime with the opposition in Astana and Sochi and others, and if it attended (the meetings), it will do so as an observer like Jordan! What is the explanation of this, thank you?
On 19/11/2017, Al-Mudun website revealed that the ongoing anti-corruption campaign in Saudi Arabia has begun to affect the military service. (A Saudi official, familiar with the anti-corruption campaign in Saudi Arabia, revealed the arrest of 14 retired officers who worked in the Ministry of Defense, and two officers of the National Guard, on suspicion of involvement in corruption cases of financial contracts.)
The question is: Does the initiation of military meetings mean that political meetings have failed? In other words, are the military talks intended to find a military solution to Article 8 after the failure of political talks? Then, what’s new that took place during these two years after the Skhirat agreement, which was contracted by both parties at that time, and now they disagree?! Thank you.